ElomKW wrote:
With B's rating as 1, from B's perspective, A's perfect score over B means A's exp is an idiotic-sounding 'infinite' a pretend number. Likewise with B's rating of 1 B's perfect score over C means C's exp has to be 0. Now, ignoring temporarily the silliness of the next phase as those handling imaginary numbers did, if C's exp is 0, and C scores perfectly over A, it implies A has an exp that makes C's 0 look infinite. What could this mystery value be?
Statisticians are way ahead with regard to this question. Going back to Laplace, if A and B play N games and A wins N games, then Laplace estimated the probability that A would beat B on their next game as (N+1)/(N+2), not 1. There are problems with Laplace's estimate, which were well known by the 20th century. But an estimate of 1 is, without other evidence, ridiculous. That is obviously so with cases of intransitivity.